Should the answer not be –0,01? It should indeed. Since the quantity demanded decreases, it should be reflected as –1%, and the answer should therefore be –0,01. Economists usually ignore the negative sign, and report the elasticity coefficient as a positive value (in mathematics, this is called absolute values). One of the reasons for this is that we know that the law of demand indicates a negative relationship between the price and quantity demanded and, consequently, the value of the price elasticity coefficient will always be negative. Nothing is lost by using the absolute values as long as we remember that we are dealing with an inverse relationship.
Thus far it all seems to be straightforward. Obtain the percentage changes, and then calculate the price elasticity using the formula. And it is indeed that simple, except that we need to deal with how the percentage changes are to be calculated.